wardah how many papers u are attempting this time
from where u belong
wardah how many papers u are attempting this time
from where u belong
Hi
Even me like to do that. I am taking F1,P1 and E1 in May only started about a month ago. I have coverd roughly all in F1 but not stared questions. Others still in first chapters. If you have any doubts post it here someone may answer. Everybody can learn something. I see all F1 questions are answered by Mr Rinsky. Keep it up your good work Rinsky.
Can someone clearly explain about
1) Right issue of shares
2) Bonus issue of shares
with double entry and explanation for dedution in share premium account ( for bonus issue)
I'm a miss for what it matters, but I'll try to help if I can.
As long as you realise that I'm studying F1 and E1 too, so unfortunately my answers aren't perfect.
As for your shares:
1) Right issue of shares
It is an issue to current shareholders only, they will need to pay for these, but this doesn't have to be at market value, but will usually be above the nominal value.
To account for them in the books:
D Cash/ bank/ where you receive the money
C Share capital (Nominal value)
C Share premium (rest of the value)
2} Bonus issue of shares
Is an issue of shares to existing share holders for free. This is to give them back some of the return on the investment, but without giving them any direct cash.
To account for them in the books:
D Share premium
C Share capital
If there is not enough money left in the share premium account, it will be debited from the other reserves.
The reason it gets deducted from the share premium account is that there is no actual money changing hands between the shareholders and the company.
The reason for a company to give a bonus issue is, as mentioned above, to give them something back for their investment in the company. The shareholders invest money in the company and while the company get's worth more, often this is just in the books in the reserves and not directly in the cash available to pay the shareholders.
Share premium is not money that can be given to the shareholders or written off to another reserve in any way, which is why it gets deducted from there first.
Issueing the bonus shares to the shareholders does increase their value in the company (the value of the bonus shares if they would sell their shares at some point) and if the company would issue more normal shares afterwards the current shareholders hold a bigger part in the amount of shares than the new shareholders.
Does this help at all?
Thanks for your expalnation Rinsky.
1)
Is it not
debit Share capital
credit share premium?
2)
When ever somebody buys a share at a perimium price, perimium amount is paid to the company for nothing?
Is share premium account used only for bonus issues?
On 1)
The share capital gets the nominal value of the shares only. So if you sell shares with a nominal value of 1.00 and you sell them for 1.50 each, 1.00 goes to the share capital and 0.50 goes to the share premium account.
It's a capital account, so it will go to the credit side.
(Capital and Liabilities are the credit side, while assets are the debit side, if that is confusing think about who owns it. An asset is owned by the company, while capital is an investment in the company, for which a return is given)
On 2
Basically share premium is used for the extra value of the shares sold, compared to the nominal value.
If the nominal value of a share is 1.00 and the shares would be sold for 1.50, the extra money received goes to the share premium account (credited) 0.50.
If the nominal value of a share is 1.00 and the shares would be sold for 0.50, the difference would be paid (debited) from the share premium account.
If a bonus issue is raised and the value of the shares is 1.00, the shareholders won't have to pay for the issue, but the shares are issued. If the nominal value of a share is 1.00, the total value would be paid from the share premium account.
As far as I can remember the share premium account is used for these kind of issues and the cost of share issues get deducted as well.
Does that help?
Thanks
1)
I do not know how come I was thinking premium account and share capital account as asset account. Sorry and thanks.
2) understood
One more question
Financial statements in exam can someone use abbriviations or short forms
like
accounts receivable AR
accounts payable AP
interest paid int paid
Increaasae in inventories inc in Inven
wardah how many papers u are attempting this time
from where u belong
it is not a rule that u r not allowed but when there is phrase that ur answer must be clear so it should be in every sense
Hi Rinsky
B - STATEMENT OF CASH FLOW FOR THE YEAR ENDED SEPTEMBER 2010
a) Operating profit before tax 85
Interest paid 15
b) Operating profit before tax (85+15) 100
which one you consider to be better a) or b)
Hi Gaad,
Have a look at the total layout for the cash flows from operating activities.
Cash flows from operating activities
Net profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Provision increases/ decreases
profit/ loss on disposal
Interest receivable / investment income
Finance costs
Operating profit before working capital changes
change in inventories
change in trade receivables
change in trade payables
Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Tax paid
Net cash from operating activities
As you already specify the interest paid in the lowest bit, I would just add the 100 at the operating profit and not bother with specifying it even further, so answer b if you ask me.
However that is just my opinion and I'd be interesting to hear what other students think of this as well, whether both may be acceptable or either one of them is considered wrong.
Hi Rinsky
Could you explain
Provision increases/ decreases
and
Interest receivable / investment income
with example?
Then
"Operating profit before working capital changes"
Can this be omitted?
What study material are you using?
Hi Gaad,
You can probably ignore both the provision increases/ decreases and the interest receivable/ investment income for now. I'm using both the BPP and Kaplan books for F1 and this was an all total options available example from Kaplan, however that's more than we are dealing with in F1.
But basically if you have a provision for example for bad debts and you increase this in the period, it would decrease your profit, but have no direct influence on the cash flow, so you would deduct the cash flow.
The investment income / interest receivable you would deduct as well, as this is income from investing activities.
So if any of these are included in the operating profit, they should be deducted before adding them somewhere else.
The operating profit before working capital changes, as far as I know these should be in it, but just as subtotal, I added them in the previous post to show them, but they are just subtotals and I don't think you would put a name to it.
Thanks
Your explanation is short and simple better than most of the books. when I ask simple questions is it ok with you or is it distrubing you studies?
That's ok with me, although please don't expect instant answers.
I usually check the boards when I start studying or when I have a break and if I don't know the answer, it will just be silent from my side! If I don't have time at that point, I will wait with answering or maybe someone else might answer!
Just please keep in mind that I am just a student and I do make mistakes too, so I am not a good replacement for any tutor or study books.
Receivable days = (receivable X 365)/sales
Receivable = (recevable days x sales)/365
receiveable= (52 x 876000)/365
=124800 ( current asset)
payable days = (payable x 365)/purchases
payable = (payable days x purchases)/365
= (38 x 416100)/365
= 43320 ( current liability)
but we have bank over draft 7000
so total current liabilities = 43320 + 7000
= 50320
Quick ratio = current asset ( with out inventories)/ current liabilities
= 124800/50320
= 2.48
May be you can try the following question
An entitie's current ratio is 2:1 usually they pay their account payable in 50 days since they have surplus funds they decided to pay in 30 days.
when they pay in 30 days what will happen to
1) current ratio ( increase or decrease)
2) working capital cycle ( increase or decrease)
Hi Rinsky OR anyone
Could you explain the following in simple English when you have time.
Offshoring
outsourcing
and Porter's diamond theory
Hi Gaad
We have an 'Ask a Tutor' event coming up soon, you may be better off asking your questions there so Rinske can get on with her studying!
Best wishes
Rebecca
CIMAsphere moderator
Hi thanks for the help!
The second question;
a) the current Ration - would this decrease as they have less liabilties outstanding?
b) the working capital cycle would also reduce?
Both will increase
a) Working capital cycle =Inven_days+Rec_days- Pay_days
when payable is reduced payable_days will decrease
So working capital cycle will increase
b) Current ratio = 2:1
lets say 200000/100000
say if you pay 50000
your asset will be reduced by 50000 (cash)
200000- 50000= 150000
and liability also is reduced (payable)
150000-50000=50000
current ratio will become 150000/50000 = 3:1
so current ratio will increase.
Production overhead cost budget
Machinery costs 285 000
Set up costs 235 000
Purchasin costs 300000
Total prod o/hs 820000
Total budgeted activities
Data Total product s product Q
Mac h hours 95000 2hr per unit 1hr per unit
No of produc runs 235 20 5
Purchase orders 5000 100 100
Production quantities S &T 5000 units 20000 units
Calculate PRODUCTION OVERHEAD COSTS for one unit of product S and Q
Hi
5 + 25 is not 235
and
100 + 100 not equal to 5000
we assume that they make some other products also
setup cost
cost driver rate = cost pool/no of cost driver activity
= setup cost/ no of production runs
cost driver rate =(235000/235)
Production run for S is 20 times
so overhead absorbed (235000/235) * 20=20000
overhead absorption per unit = 20000/5000= 4
for Q
Production run is 5 times
overhead absorbed (235000/235) * 5 = 5000
overhead absorbed per unit =5000/20000 = 0.25
Purchasing cost
cost driver rate = cost pool/no of cost driver activities
= 300000/5000 = 60
For S no of activities 100
there for total overhead for purchasing = 60 * 100 = 6000
per unit = 6000/5000=1.20
For Q 6000/20000 = 0.30
Total overhead absorbed per unit for S = 4 + 1.20 = 5.20
Total overhead absorbed per unit for Q = 0.25 +0.30 = 0.55
Please anyone correct me if I am wrong. Nawreen Shafi where did you find the question. You may confirm the answer with " Ask the tutor" if nobody responses. ( Rebecca says ! )
hello,
I am shan. i am doing E1,P1,F1 in may next month, i have good command on P1 and F1 but very bad in E1 because i hate theory. i live in UK but belongs to Pakistan. any tricks for E1?
In exam should you use the first method or even second method (infact the order of the pages) are OK?
Page 1
consolidated statement for group
page 2
w1 group structure
w2 net assets of subsidiary
w3 goodwill
w4 PUP
w5 group retained earnings
OR
page 1
w1 group structure
w2 net assets of subsidiary
w3 goodwill
w4 PUP
w5 group retained earnings
page 2
consolidated statement for group