MyCIMA

study together

Replies : 31
Keywords: E1, P1
HI This is Wardah i am looking forward for a study partner with whom i can study on line.so there would be a better exchange of knowledge.

hi

wardah how many papers u are attempting this time

from where u belong 

 

F1 E1 P1

Hi

Even me like to do that. I am taking F1,P1 and E1 in May only started about a month ago. I have coverd roughly all in F1 but not stared questions. Others still in first chapters.  If you have any doubts post it here someone may answer. Everybody can learn something. I see all F1 questions are answered by Mr Rinsky. Keep it up your good work Rinsky.

 Can someone clearly explain about

1) Right issue of shares

2) Bonus issue of shares

with double entry and explanation for dedution in share premium account  ( for bonus issue)

 

To Gaad

I'm a miss for what it matters, but I'll try to help if I can.

As long as you realise that I'm studying F1 and E1 too, so unfortunately my answers aren't perfect.

As for your shares: 

1) Right issue of shares

It is an issue to current shareholders only, they will need to pay for these, but this doesn't have to be at market value, but will usually be above the nominal value. 

To account for them in the books:

D Cash/ bank/ where you receive the money

C Share capital (Nominal value)

C Share premium (rest of the value) 

2} Bonus issue of shares

Is an issue of shares to existing share holders for free. This is to give them back some of the return on the investment, but without giving them any direct cash.

To account for them in the books:

D Share premium 

C Share capital 

If there is not enough money left in the share premium account, it will be debited from the other reserves.

The reason it gets deducted from the share premium account is that there is no actual money changing hands between the shareholders and the company. 

The reason for a company to give a bonus issue is, as mentioned above,  to give them something back for their investment in the company. The shareholders invest money in the company and while the company get's worth more, often this is just in the books in the reserves and not directly in the cash available to pay the shareholders. 

Share premium is not money that can be given to the shareholders or written off to another reserve in any way, which is why it gets deducted from there first. 

Issueing the bonus shares to the shareholders does increase their value in the company (the value of the bonus shares if they would sell their shares at some point) and if the company would issue more normal shares afterwards the current shareholders hold a bigger part in the amount of shares than the new shareholders.

Does this help at all? 

shares

Thanks for your expalnation Rinsky.

 

1)

Is it not

debit Share capital

credit share premium?

2)

When ever somebody buys a share at a perimium price, perimium amount is paid to the company for nothing? 

Is share premium account used only for bonus issues? 

Shares

On 1)

The share capital gets the nominal value of the shares only. So if you sell shares with a nominal value of 1.00 and you sell  them for 1.50 each, 1.00 goes to the share capital and 0.50 goes to the share premium account.

It's a capital account, so it will go to the credit side.

(Capital and Liabilities are the credit side, while assets are the debit side, if that is confusing think about who owns it. An asset is owned by the company, while capital is an investment in the company, for which a return is given)

On 2 

Basically share premium is used for the extra value of the shares sold, compared to the nominal value.

If the nominal value of a share is 1.00 and the shares would be sold for 1.50, the extra money received goes to the share premium account (credited) 0.50.

If the nominal value of a share is 1.00 and the shares would be sold for 0.50, the difference would be paid (debited) from the share premium account.

If a bonus issue is raised and the value of the shares is 1.00, the shareholders won't have to pay for the issue, but the shares are issued. If the nominal value of a share is 1.00, the total value would be paid from the share premium account. 

As far as I can remember the share premium account is used for these kind of issues and the cost of share issues get deducted as well.

Does that help? 

shares

Thanks 

1)

I do not know how come I was thinking premium account and share capital account as asset account. Sorry and thanks.

2) understood

One more question

Financial statements in exam can someone use abbriviations  or short forms

like

accounts receivable      AR

accounts payable          AP

interest paid                 int paid 

Increaasae in inventories     inc in Inven 

Depends

I would use the abbreviations in my workings, but for the financial statements, I think you do need to write them out. However I'm not sure about that.

e1

i m from pakistan but living in saudia and i am appearing for e1 and p1
Muhammad Salman Khan wrote:

wardah how many papers u are attempting this time

from where u belong 

 

no abbreviations

 it is not a rule that u r not allowed but when there is phrase that ur answer must be clear so it should be in every sense

 

Cash flow

Hi Rinsky

B - STATEMENT OF CASH FLOW FOR THE YEAR ENDED SEPTEMBER 2010

a) Operating profit before tax                                       85

    Interest paid                                                           15

 

b) Operating profit before tax (85+15)                          100

 

which one you consider to be better a) or b)

Statement of cash flow

Hi Gaad,

Have a look at the total layout for the cash flows from operating activities. 

Cash flows from operating activities

Net profit before tax

Adjustments for:

Depreciation

Provision increases/ decreases

profit/ loss on disposal

Interest receivable / investment income

Finance costs

Operating profit before working capital changes

change in inventories

change in trade receivables

change in trade payables

Cash generated from operations

Interest paid 

Tax paid

Net cash from operating activities

 

As you already specify the interest paid in the lowest bit, I would just add the 100 at the operating profit and not bother with specifying it even further, so answer b if you ask me.

However that is just my opinion and I'd be interesting to hear what other students think of this as well, whether both may be acceptable or either one of them is considered wrong. 

p1 course exam with BPP

Hi is anyone else doing a course exam 1 for p1 with bpp??

Cash flow

Hi Rinsky

Could you explain

Provision increases/ decreases

and

Interest receivable / investment income

with example?

Then

"Operating profit before working capital changes"

Can this be omitted?

What study material are you using?

 

Cash flow

Hi Gaad,

You can probably ignore both the provision increases/ decreases and the interest receivable/ investment income for now. I'm using both the BPP and Kaplan books for F1 and this was an all total options available example from Kaplan, however that's more than we are dealing with in F1. 

But basically if you have a provision for example for bad debts and you increase this in the period, it would decrease your profit, but have no direct influence on the cash flow, so you would deduct the cash flow. 

The investment income / interest receivable you would deduct as well, as this is income from investing activities. 

So if any of these are included in the operating profit, they should be deducted before adding them somewhere else. 

The operating profit before working capital changes, as far as I know these should be in it, but just as subtotal, I added them in the previous post to show them, but they are just subtotals and I don't think you would put a name to it. 

cashflow

Thanks

Your explanation is short and simple better than most of the books. when I ask simple questions is it ok with you or is it distrubing you studies?

 

Gaad

That's ok with me, although please don't expect instant answers.

I usually check the boards when I start studying or when I have a break and if I don't know the answer, it will just be silent from my side!  If I don't have time at that point, I will wait with answering or maybe someone else might answer! 

Just please keep in mind that I am just a student and I do make mistakes too, so I am not a good replacement for any tutor or study books. 

quick Ratio

p

Quick ratio

 

 

Quick ratio

Receivable days = (receivable X 365)/sales

Receivable = (recevable days x sales)/365

receiveable= (52 x 876000)/365

                =124800 ( current asset)

 

payable days = (payable x 365)/purchases

payable   = (payable days x purchases)/365

               = (38 x 416100)/365

                = 43320 ( current liability)

but we have bank over draft 7000

so total current liabilities = 43320 + 7000

                                     = 50320

 

Quick ratio = current asset ( with out inventories)/ current liabilities

                 = 124800/50320

                  = 2.48

 

May be you can try the following question

An entitie's current ratio is 2:1 usually they pay their account payable in 50 days since they have surplus funds they decided to pay in 30 days.

when they pay in 30 days what will happen to

1) current ratio ( increase or decrease)

2) working capital cycle ( increase or decrease)

E1

Hi Rinsky OR anyone

Could you explain the following in simple English when you have time.

Offshoring

outsourcing

and Porter's diamond theory

Ask a tutor

Hi Gaad

We have an 'Ask a Tutor' event coming up soon, you may be better off asking your questions there so Rinske can get on with her studying!

Best wishes

Rebecca
CIMAsphere moderator

Ask a tutor

Ok

Sorry

Thank you 

Quick Ratio - gaand

Hi thanks for the help!

The second question;

 

a) the current Ration - would this decrease as they have less liabilties outstanding?

b) the working capital cycle would also reduce?

Quick Ratio

Both will increase

a) Working capital cycle =Inven_days+Rec_days- Pay_days

when payable is reduced payable_days will decrease

So working capital cycle will increase

b) Current ratio = 2:1

lets say 200000/100000

say if you pay 50000

your asset will be reduced by 50000 (cash)

200000- 50000= 150000

and liability also is reduced (payable)

150000-50000=50000

current ratio will become  150000/50000 = 3:1 

so current ratio will increase.

 

ABC costing question for 5marks?!

Production overhead cost budget

Machinery costs  285 000

Set up costs       235 000

Purchasin costs   300000

Total prod o/hs    820000

Total budgeted activities

Data                           Total                 product s              product Q

Mac h hours             95000             2hr per unit               1hr per unit

No of produc runs      235                   20                              5

Purchase orders       5000                    100                          100

Production quantities S &T                5000 units               20000 units

 

Calculate PRODUCTION OVERHEAD COSTS for one unit of product S and Q             

ABC

Hi

5 + 25 is not 235

and

100 + 100 not equal to 5000

we assume that they make some other products also

setup cost

cost driver rate = cost pool/no of cost driver activity

                       = setup cost/ no of production runs

 cost driver rate =(235000/235)

Production run for S is 20 times

so overhead absorbed  (235000/235) * 20=20000

overhead absorption per unit = 20000/5000= 4

for Q

Production run is 5 times

overhead absorbed (235000/235) * 5 = 5000

overhead absorbed per unit =5000/20000 = 0.25

 

Purchasing cost

cost driver rate = cost pool/no of cost driver activities

                       = 300000/5000  =  60

For S no of activities 100

there for total overhead for purchasing  = 60 * 100 = 6000

per unit  = 6000/5000=1.20

For Q 6000/20000 = 0.30

Total overhead absorbed per unit for S = 4 + 1.20 = 5.20

Total overhead absorbed per unit for Q = 0.25 +0.30 = 0.55

 

Please anyone correct me if I am wrong. Nawreen Shafi where did you find the question. You may confirm the answer with " Ask the tutor" if nobody responses. ( Rebecca says ! )

 

 

ABC

o

gh

gh

Operational level

hello,

       I am shan. i am doing E1,P1,F1 in may next month, i have good command on P1 and F1 but very bad in E1 because i hate theory. i live in UK but belongs to Pakistan. any tricks for E1? 

group account

 

In exam should you use the first method or even second method (infact the order of the pages) are OK? 

 

 

Page 1

consolidated statement for group 

 

page 2

w1 group structure

w2 net assets of subsidiary

w3 goodwill

w4 PUP

w5 group retained earnings

 

 

OR

 

page 1

w1 group structure

w2 net assets of subsidiary

w3 goodwill

w4 PUP

w5 group retained earnings

 

page 2

consolidated statement for group